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Promotion Board Questions

 

TDCJ-ID PROMOTION BOARD STUDY QUESTIONS

It should be noted that this list is hardly all inclusive, and may contain errors. It is recommended that you become familiar with the policies which are present on your unit. These questions are designed to assist those who are already somewhat familiar with the policies, but would like a source for studying and preparing for an upcoming board. If you observe any problems with these questions, please contact me via e-mail at ramavery@yahoo.com

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TABLE OF CONTENTS

SELECT APPROPRIATE NUMBER TO GO TO THAT TOPIC

  1. INMATE DISCIPLINARY ACTIONS
  2. INMATE DEATH
  3. USE OF FORCE
  4. FOOD SERVICE
  5. WEAPONS AND CRIME SCENE PROTECTION
  6. DUTIES OF SECURITY AND RANK
  7. INMATE MAIL
  8. UNIT SUPPLY
  9. INSTITUTIONAL LOCKDOWN
  10. ADMINISTRATIVE SEGREGATION
  11. SHOWERS
  12. RECEPTION AND DIAGNOSTICS
  13. ESCAPES
  14. EMERGENCY RESPONSE TEAM
  15. INMATE PROPERTY
  16. CHEMICAL AGENTS
  17. INMATE CUSTODY LEVELS AND TIME EARNING CLASSES
  18. CONTRABAND AND SEARCHES
  19. OFF UNIT TRANSPORTS
  20. RECREATION
  21. IAD (INTERNAL AFFAIRS DIVISION)
  22. HOSTAGE SITUATIONS
  23. EMPLOYEE DISCIPLINARY
  24. EMPLOYEE GRIEVANCES
  25. COUNT PROCEDURES
  26. INMATE VISITATION
  27. LAW LIBRARY
  28. MAINTENANCE
  29. SITUATIONAL QUESTIONS
  30. EMPLOYEE DRUG/ALCOHOL TESTING

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1. INMATE DISCIPLINARY ACTIONS

 

Q. _________________ or ______________ shall review and approve all disciplinary reports on a unit which result in major penalties.

A. Unit Warden or Assistant Warden

 

Q. If an inmate receives any of the following major penalties, or assessments of damages for destruction of state property, he/she will receive what penalties?

A. a. punitive segregation

b. reduction in time-earning class

c. loss of good conduct time

d. retention in Line Class III (also referred to as remain line III)

e. cell restriction (when imposed on death row inmates).

 

Q. Who is responsible for ensuring the accuracy of all entries on disciplinary

reports and disciplinary hearing records?

A. Unit Disciplinary Hearing Officers

 

Q. Affirmed findings and punishments given by the Unit Disciplinary Hearing

Officer will be indicated by whose signature on the Disciplinary Hearing

Record?

A. Wardens

 

Q. Where do you send a disciplinary hearing record once it is signed?

A.. State Classification Committee

 

Q. The ______________ shall be the final authority in all administrative

review processes for major disciplinary actions.

A. State Classification Committee

 

Q. Who will be the official custodian of the hearing tapes?

A. Disciplinary Hearing Officer

 

Q. Who reviews disciplinary actions appealed to the Deputy Director level ?

A. Department Grievance Coordinator

 

Q. What recommendations can the Departmental Grievance Coordinator suggest

to the Deputy Director when reviewing disciplinary actions as an appropriate

course of action?

A. a. affirm the conviction

b. overturn the conviction

c. reduce the punishment

d. modify the charge or charges

 

Q. When an inmates time-earning class and/or good time credits have been

restored as a result of a successful appeal of a disciplinary conviction

or deleted disciplinary action, the inmates classification will be reviewed

by ________________ to ensure the inmates classification is appropriate.

A. Unit Classification Staff

 

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2. INMATE DEATH

Q. Who is notified immediately when there is an inmate death?

A. a. Warden

b. Facility Administrator or designee

 

Q. What does state law require if an inmate death occurs in circumstances

such as suicide, homicide, or accident?

A. State law requires that the Justice of the Peace personnel inspect the body

and conduct an inquest as to the cause of death. State law also requires

that the Justice of the Peace or the Medical Examiner, as well as local

law enforcement, be present prior to the removal of the body.

 

Q. Who may declare an inmate deceased?

A. a. physician

b. physician’s assistant

c. registered nurse

d. local Justice of the Peace

 

Q. Within what time period must a inmates death be reported to the Emergency

Action Center (EAC).

A. 3 hours

 

Q. Who does the Warden/Facility Administrator, or his designee, report an inmates

death?

A. by telephone they notify the Regional Director or the next highest authority

and EAC

 

Q. Who does the EAC officer notify when there is an inmate death?

A. a. Appropriation Division Director

b. TDCJ-ID Deputy Director of Security

c. Public Information Officer

d. Classification and Records Department employee or the divisions Records Personnel

e. Division Director for Health Services

f. Inmate Trust Fund Office or the division office responsible for inmate accounts

g. Warden of the TDCJ-ID’s Huntsville Unit.

 

Q. Are autopsies performed for each inmate death?

A. No. Inmates that die by legal execution are not required to have an autopsy.

 

Q. What happens to a inmates property if he/she dies?

A. the property is promptly collected, inventoried, and boxed up. The inmates name, TDCJ number, date of death, and estimated value of the property is written on the outside of the box. The next of kin is notified , and they decide what should be done with the property.

 

Q. What happens to the money in an inmates Trust Fund Account if it is not claimed after death?

A. after 2 years, the money reverts to the state

 

Q. What information must be included in the Administrative Review after a death?

A. a. name of the deceased

b. TDCJ number

c. facility of assignment

d. date and time of death

e. who pronounced the inmate dead

f. circumstance of the death

 

Q. What is done after a investigation is completed following an inmates death in

circumstances such as suicide, homicide, or accident?

A. a Custodial Death Report is completed and forwarded to the Office of the

Attorney General by TDCJ’s Internal Affairs Division within 20 days of

the death.

 

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3. USE OF FORCE

 Q. What are the four chemical agent delivery weapons provided and authorized

for use by TDCJ-ID?

A. a. tear smoke generator

b. 37 mm gas gun

c. mace (aerosol sprays)

1. OC aerosol spray

2. CS aerosol spray

d. grenades

 

Q. If it becomes necessary to strike an inmate with a riot baton in self defense or defense of another, where should you attempt to place the blow?

A. to a non-vital area:

1. clavicle (collarbone)

2. knee (inside or out)

3. arms (particularly the elbow)

 

Q. When is a ‘forced cell move’ authorized?

A. a. when an inmate refuses a direct verbal order to exit a cell for a routine cell or body search.

b. when an inmate refuses a direct verbal order to surrender a weapon or an item which can be used as a weapon to harm officials and/or inmates.

c. when an inmate refuses a direct verbal order to leave an area

d. when an inmate refuses a direct verbal order to leave a cell in order to be moved to any other cell.

 

Q. What does a supervisor list in his/her Major Use of Force report when chemical agents were taken to the scene of an incident, but were not used?

A. a. type and amount of chemical agents obtained and later returned

b. who authorized the use of the chemical agents

c. explanation as to why the chemicals were not used

 

Q. What is the 5 step decontamination process of individuals exposed to OC gas?

A. a. move the affected person to fresh air

b. flush contaminated body areas with large amounts of cold water

c. remove contact lenses and contaminated clothing. Wash thoroughly prior to re- use.

d. further relief may be gained by showering with soap and water

e. don’t apply salves, creams, oils or lotions. These can trap the irritant.

 

Q. How is an area exposed to OC gas decontaminated?

A. ventilate the enclosed, affected area. (the OC should disappear in as little as

30 minutes)

 

Q. Which personnel should routinely carry handcuffs?

A. a. security supervisors

b. Segregation Security Officers

c. Field Security Officers

d. Security Officers assigned to high security housing (Close/Medium/Ad Seg)

e. Departmental Security Officers who routinely supervise offender work or movement.

 

Q. When is deadly force authorized?

A. a. to prevent an escape

b. to prevent serious bodily injury to a person

c. to quell a rebellion, riot, or disturbance in which loss of life or serious

bodily injury to any person is imminent, or where lesser means of

major force have failed to achieve the quelling of such rebellion, riot,

or disturbance.

 

Q. What are the 2 types of gas authorized for use by TDCJ?

A. a. CS (Orthochlorbenzalmalonitrile) color code BLUE

b. OC (Oleoresin Capsicum)

 

Q. What weapons are provided by or authorized for use by TDCJ personnel?

A. a. .38 revolver

b. .357 magnum revolver

c. 12-gauge shotgun

d. .223 semi-automatic rifle

e. .30/30 rifle

f. 308 bolt action rifle

g. other weapons as approved by the agency

 

 

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4. FOOD SERVICE

 

Q. List one of five responsibilities of the units’ medical department if an inmate

is attempting a hunger strike.

A. a. document any evidence in the inmates medical records

b. conduct a psychological evaluation of the inmate and document in their

medical records.

c. attempt to establish a relationship with the inmate and access their

nutritional status

d. if medical evaluations reveal that the inmate is in imminent danger ,

the inmate can be forced fed.

e. in the event that there is more than one inmate on a hunger strike, the

inmates are to be separated so that they are not able to support each

others efforts.

 

Q. What are the two time periods established by the Ruiz case and House Bill 124

which pertain to inmate feeding?

A. a. that a reasonable time for feeding a meal is 3 hours

b. that a reasonable time in which to eat is 20 minutes

 

Q. Are inmates that are fed in their cells (not due to being on lockdown),

fed differently from inmates not fed in their cells?

A. No. they are served the same meal as general population inmates

(except during a lockdown, where policy changes)

 

Q. What is the Standards for Texas Correctional Institutions booklet utilized for?

A. it is a manual used as a reference tool which provides cross-references to various

court orders, administrative directives, TDCJ-ID manuals, and state and

federal regulations.

 

Q. What is Food Services’ policy on inmate searches?

A. that all inmates be strip searched prior to leaving the Food Service department.

If strip searches are not done, proper pat searches are to be done.

 

Q. What is Food Services’ policy in regards to ‘religious’ meals?

A. meals are to be provided so that they do not interfere with an inmates

religious beliefs when it is within reason and the food is available.

 

Q. What are the responsibilities of the units Food Service Department during

the religious period for Ramadan ?

A. a. participating inmates are fed 1 hour before dawn

b. participating inmates are fed 1 hour before sunset

c. the meals are to be well balanced and PORK FREE

 

Q. What is the required food temperature for potentially hazardous foods?

A. a. must have a internal temperature of 45 degrees F or below

b. 140 degrees F or above during display and service

 

Q. What does Food Service mean by ‘a sensitive item’?

A. any item considered by the Food Service Manager or Warden/Facility

Administrator to be a potential hazard or dangerous.

 

Q. What is the maximum length of time that inmates can be fed between supper

and breakfast?

A. 14 hours

 

Q. Are inmates required to wear gloves when working the food lines or preparing

trays?

A. No. However they are required to wash their hands with soap and water prior

to handling trays or food.

 

 

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5. WEAPONS AND CRIME SCENE PROTECTION

 

Q. What is the acronym that describes actions to be taken in any emergency

situation?

A. CAPER

a. contain

b. alert

c. plan

d. execute

e. restore

 

Q. Who is responsible for securing the area when a crime has been committed?

A. the first officer on the scene will immediately secure the area and take

mental and written notes regarding the area.

 

Q. What steps should be taken to document the location and information of

weapons found at a crime scene?

A. video tapes and still photos should be taken of the crime scene so that the

actual size and the exact location of the evidence can be reported.

 

Q. What is ‘chain of custody’?

A. The chain of custody is a tracking system used to determine who confiscated,

carried, touched and turned in evidence. The chain of custody should be

as short as possible (preferably 1 or 2 people).

 

Q. What kind of bag is used to place evidence in?

A. A paper bag or envelope should be used for any item that is wet: i.e.: blood,

urine, feces.

 

Q. After the evidence has been picked up and secured, how does the officer

turn the evidence over to I.A. (Internal Affairs)?

A. a. If someone from I.A. is at the scene, evidence may be given to them directly.

b. If no one at the scene is from I.A., the evidence may be placed in a special,

lockable, metal box with an I.O.C. describing the circumstances.

 

Q. Does a E.A.C. (Emergency Action Center) report have to be sent when a weapon

is found?

A. Yes

 

Q. If an inmate fights another inmate, and he/she kicks the inmate with boots they

have on, are the boots considered a weapon?

A. Yes

 

Q. Should a weapon be picked up immediately and secured?

A. If the area is secured, it is best to leave the weapon where it was found.

 

Q. If you have a weapon in your custody, and a supervisor asks you if he or she

can see the weapon, does the supervisor become part of the chain of custody?

A. Yes. Everyone who touches weapon becomes part of the chain of custody.

 

 

 

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6. DUTIES OF SECURITY AND RANK

 

Q. Which rank to the following duties and responsibilities pertain to?

a. assignment of employees

b. assignment of inmates to jobs and housing

c. oversees that departments and the unit comply with court orders

d. when needed, assists the Disciplinary Hearing Officer of Grievance

Lieutenant

e. prepares employee evaluations on Captains, Lieutenants, and Sergeants

f. makes daily inspections of solitary-segregation, law-library, and the

building/compound

A. the Major

 

Q. During count time, the Cellblock Officer shall:

a. announce count time and require each inmate to go to their assigned

cell or dayroom

b. allow inmates to stay on the runs

c. have another officer lock the cellblock and hold the keys

d. count all the rows at one time

e. A and C

A. (E): inmates are NOT allowed on the runs during count , and officer are

to count 1 row at a time

 

Q. The maintaining of orderly flow of inmate traffic in the hallway, and the

preserving of security and control of the hallway is the primary duty of the:

a. Craft Shop Officer

b. Control Picket Officer

c. Corridor Officer

d. Sergeants

A. ( C ) Corridor Officer

 

Q. Picket Officers will be assigned the following weapons: ( TRUE or FALSE)

a. Smith and Wesson Model 65 revolver

b. Colt AR-15 rifle

c. Remington 870-P shotgun

A. True

 

Q. What officer is responsible for the structures that encompass the building or

unit area, and provide outside security to the unit?

a. Frontgate Picket Officer

b. Backgate Picket Officer

c. Perimeter Picket Officer

d. all the above

A. all the above

 

Q. Who is utilized to detect and control intrusion of contraband and controlled

substances into the unit?

a. Field Officer

b. Highway Gate Officer

c. Infirmary Officer

d. Recreation Officer

A. ( B ) : Highway Gate Officer

 

Q. Shift Sergeants are responsible for:

a. giving special orders or instructions

b. assigning shift officers their daily assignments

c. discussing any problems encountered or anticipated

d. informing shift officers of pertinent new information

e. all the above

A. all the above

 

Q. Who provides custody and control of inmate population?

a. Lieutenants

b. Sergeants

c. Cellblock Officers

d. Dorm Officers

e. all the above

A. All the above

 

Q. Who is responsible for the duties of keeping the unit grounds clean and

well groomed?

a. Field Officers

b. Perimeter Officers

c. Yard Officers

d. none of the above

A. ( C ): Yard Officers

 

Q. The Mobil Patrol Officers’ duties include:

a. investigation of alarms on units equipped with alarms

b. investigation of alarms called in by officers

c. investigation of unauthorized vehicles on the property

d. investigation of any unusual activity on the unit

e. C and D

f. all the above

A. ( F ): all the above

 

 

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7. INMATE MAIL

 

Q. What are the 4 types of inmate correspondence?

A. a. general

b. special

c. media

d. legal

 

Q. All mail and packages will be delivered to the inmate within ______ hours?

A. 48 hours

 

Q. What type of correspondence can be sealed:?

A. special

 

Q. If contraband is found and the correspondence rejected, the inmate must

receive a written notice of the rejection and a statement giving the reason

within ______hours?

A. 72 hours

 

Q. Who inspects and rejects all general correspondence?

A. Unit Mail Room personnel

 

Q. Can outgoing and incoming correspondence from any licensed attorney

or legal aid society be opened?

A. Yes

 

Q. What is ‘special’ correspondence?

A. any mail from the Texas Board of Criminal Justice-I.D., a Director,

all Assistant Directors, Wardens of TDCJ-ID, any court of the U.S..,

any member of the Legislature, any States of the U.S., any member

of Congress, the president, Governor, Attorney General, Attorney of the

Dept. of Justice, and the Director or agent of the FBI or Local Police Agency.

 

Q. Can a inmate receive C.O.D. mail and have the cost taken out of their

Trust Fund accounts?

A. No

 

Q. When is a inmate considered to be indigent?

A. when they have less that $5.00 in their Trust Fund

 

Q. How many letters can a indigent inmate send in one week?

A. five (one ounce domestic letters)

 

 

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8. Unit Supply

 

Q. How many times per month can Unit Supply order from the prison store?

A. Twice per month

 

Q. Who is responsible for receiving all prison store items, and for the distribution of

these items to the appropriate department on their unit?

A. Unit Supply Officer

 

Q. Who is responsible for delivering prison store items and security operations

supplies?

A. Freight Transportation

 

Q. Who will insure that the supplies received by their department are properly utilized?

A. Unit Warden and Division Head

 

Q. Who does Unit Supply Operations report to?

A. Unit Warden

 

Q. Who signs all returns?

A. Unit Warden

 

Q. Who will maintain stock records on necessities items and submit their completed

requisitions?

A. The Unit Laundry Manager or designee

 

Q. Where does inmates clothing ragouts forwarded to?

A. Huntsville Unit Textile Mill

 

Q. Where do copies of excess returns forwarded to?

A. Assistant Director for Operational Review with a copy also going to Sec. Operations

 

Q. Where do deliveries from the prison store trucks be made?

A. Unit supply

 

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9. INSTITUTUTIONAL LOCKDOWN

 

Q. How long can an institutional lockdown last?

a.) 30 days

b.) 4 weeks

c.) However long the warden deems necessary

d.) Indefinitely

A. C.

 

Q. How often will the warden make follow up reports on the lockdown?

a.) Weekly

b.) At the beginning and at the end of the lockdown

c.) Every odd day

d.) Daily

A. D.

 

Q. Access to Law books in accordance with the rules regarding segregated inmates

should be provided if the lockdown extends beyond?

a.) 1 day

b.) 2 days

c.) 3 days

d.) 1 week

A. D.

 

Q. When Law books cannot safely be provided in the housing area, Special law library

and law book privileges will be granted only in cases when the inmate is?

a.) Indigent

b.) A writ writer

c.) Has an imminent hearing or court deadline

d.) has a court case dismissed

A. C.

 

Q. What is the purpose of the Institutional Lockdown daily activity log?

a.) To give the officers something to do

b.) To keep track of personnel entering the area

c.) To record the daily activities during a lockdown

A. C.

 

Q. When is an Institutional lockdown necessary ?

a.) To control the flow of Contraband

b.) To control an immediate and serious threat to order, security and safety of the unit

c.) To determine which inmates are causing problems with the daily schedule of the unit.

A. C.

 

Q. A lockdown of an institutional may be imposed by it?

a.) Chaplain

b.) Warden

c.) Warden or Central Administration

d.) Shift supervisor

A. C.

 

Q. The imposing of an institutional lockdown shall be immediately reported to who?

a.) Regional director

b.) E.A.C.

c.) A and B

d.) Unit Warden

e.) All of the above

A. C.

 

Q. How often will the inmates on lockdown be allowed to shower?

a.) Everyday

b.) 3 times per week

c.) 2 times per week

d.) Every other day

A. B.

 

Q. Can the lockdown be lifted at anytime?

True or False

A. True

 

Q. What is a progressive release schedule?

a.) A daily schedule of activities

b.) A schedule detailing what will be done for that day

c.) A schedule letting the inmate know what they are allowed for that day

d.) All of the above

A. d.) all of the above

 

 

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10. Administrative Segregation

Q. What are the four types of Administrative Segregation ?

A. 1.) Security

2.) Pre-Hearing Detention

3.) Protective Custody

4.) Temporary Detention

 

 

Q. How long must an inmate be separated from general population before being considered to be in

Administrative Segregation?

A. Twenty hours or more

 

Q. If an inmate needs to be separated from the general population in order to maintain the integrity of

an investigation, what category should he be placed?

A. Pre-Hearing detention

 

Q. There are three levels of Administrative Segregation, which level should an inmate with

an assaultive

or aggressive nature be assigned?

A. Level III

 

Q. What does ASC stand for?

A. Administrative Segregation Committee

 

Q. What levels of Administrative Segregation do not receive dessert with their meals?

A. Level II an Level III

 

Q. If an inmate is placed on a food loaf by the ASC, how long will he be on it?

A. Seven Days

 

Q. Can Administrative Segregation be used for punishment or misconduct?

A. No. A.S. is a non-punitive status involving separation of an inmate from the general population for

the purpose of maintaining safety, security, and order among general population.

 

Q. What visitation privileges does a Level III inmate receive?

A. One non-contact visit each month

 

Q. What commissary privileges does a Level I inmate receive?

A. Same as General Population inmates/ $60.00 every two weeks.

 

 

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11. Showers

 

Q. How often is a regular inmate permitted to shower?

A. At least once daily

 

Q. How often is a paraplegic inmate permitted to shower?

A. Whenever necessary, as determined by Health Services

 

Q. When is an inmate not permitted to shower?

A. During normal working hours, unless authorized by the supervisor as an emergency measure.

 

Q. Inmates will carry towels or extra clothing from the shower area.

A. False

 

Q. Are inmates allowed to have shoes inside the shower area?

A. Yes, shower shoes only, are allowed.

 

Q. What personal hygiene articles are allowed to inmates?

A. Toothbrush, toothpaste, comb, deodorant, shaving materials, KOP medications,

and any medically required items.

 

Q. How often should shower stalls be searched?

A. Before and after each inmate showers.

 

Q. Can an inmate be forced to bathe/shower?

A. Yes. After 7 days of refusing to shower a doctor can write an order for forced bathing and actions

during and following forced shower must be documented.

 

 

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12. Reception and Diagnostics

 

Q. What shall each inmate receive when coming into TDCJ?

A. Hygienic attention (shower, shave, haircut, etc. ) clothing, shoes, & toilet articles.

 

Q. When an inmate is photographed for an I.D. Card, where will it be issued?

A. Inmates unit of assignment.

 

Q. How are inmates housed at the Reception and Diagnostic Center?

A. Based on the inmates age, physical size, current offense of record, number of prior

confinements, and

other security related characteristics.

 

Q. All newly received inmates shall be given orientation in what topics?

A. 1. Institutional division policies and rules, inmate grievance procedures, and good conduct time.

2. Unit programs and services.

3. Educational programs and services.

 

Q. What is included in the medical examination phase?

A. 1. Medical history

2. Audiometric examination.

3. Physical examination.

4. Dental exam.

5. Eye exam.

6. Appropriate laboratory analysis.

7. Other medical exams required.

 

Q. In the Educational Testing phase, what tests will be administered to the inmates?

A. 1. Educational Achievement (EA) tests. (California Test of Adult Basic Education [TABE]).

2. Intelligence Quotient Test (Revised Beta Examination II, Medium level).

 

Q. Inmates who have IQ scores of 70 or below shall be referred to whom?

A. Psychological D & E professional staff for further testing and assessment.

 

Q. What information is included on the inmate’s admission summary and travel card?

A. A) Admission summary:

1. Arrest History

2. Family History

3. Employment, education, and military history

4. Inmates version and the official version of the present offense.

B) Travel Card:

1. Pertinent sections of the admission summary

2. Contents of the UCR form

3. Contents of the Bureau of Record Identification form

 

Q. Where is the travel card placed upon arrival at the inmates Unit of Assignment?

A. In the inmates unit folder and all classification documents are forwarded to the unit classification

office.

 

Q. How soon are inmates classified?

A. Within 24-48 hours of their arrival at the unit.

 

 

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13. Escapes

 

Q. Name five responsibilities of a Correctional Officer assigned to a search area post.

A. 1.) Remain on post until properly relieved.

2.) Report any unusual activity.

3.) Make no unnecessary display of weapons.

4.) Identify yourself to the public as necessary.

5.) Maintain professionalism and courtesy.

 

Q. If contact with the escapee(s) is made, the use of force plan should be followed.

Name three things a armed officer should do:

A. 1). Call to the inmate to "halt or be fired upon"

2). Fire a warning shot

3). Fire to disable rather than kill

 

Q. When manning a search area checkpoint and you have a vehicle stopped, name

three procedures to be followed:

A. 1). Be extremely courteous

2). Explain the nature of the situation

3). Avoid any unnecessary display of weapons

 

Q. Name several limitations of a TDCJ-ID officer during an outside search:

A. 1). Remember you are not a peace officer

2). Remember you have no jurisdiction over civilians

3). You cannot forcefully enter a private business or home

4). You cannot search private citizens

4). You cannot serve search warrants

 

Q. Who notifies the shift supervisor when an escape has occurred?

A. 1). The person who sees the escape

2). The person who discovers that an escape has occurred

3). The person who concludes that an escape has occurred

 

Q. What type of count is initiated when an escape is suspected?

A. Special Count: It should be completed as quickly and as accurately

as possible in order to verify that an escape has occurred. It is

designed to identify the number of escapees, their name(s),

number(s), work, and living areas.

 

Q. When an escapee(s) is identified, why is it necessary to secure their

property?

A. To inventory and search for possible clues regarding the escape,

such as letters or maps

 

Q. Name three incidents that require notification to the EAC as soon

as possible, but no later than 3 hours after their occurrence:

A. 1). Escapes

2). Deaths

3). Institutional lockdowns

 

Q. If the escapee(s) is captured, should you try to interrogate

him/her?

A. NO: Improper interrogation of the escapee may hamper law

enforcement authority’s ability to successfully prosecute the

escapee.

 

Q. Name the first 6 procedures, in order, that must be followed

when an escape has occurred:

A. 1). Secure the unit

2). Notify key personnel

3). Initiate special count

4). Secure escapee’s property

5). Identify witness

6). Supervise normal unit operations

 

 

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14. EMERGENCY RESPONSE TEAM

 

Q. What A.D. ( Administrative Directive) governs the Response Team?

A. 1) A.D. 1.21

 

Q. What is the purpose of the Emergency Response Team?

1). Regain control of an emergency situation by non-lethal means.

 

Q. Name 10 duties and responsibilities of the Emergency Response

Team?

A. 1). Show of force

2). Non-lethal, non-chemical agent assault to disperse riotous inmates

3). Non-lethal, chemical agent to disperse riotous inmates

4). Defend personnel against riotous inmate assault

5). prevent the destruction of property

6). Control hostile inmates

7). Capture or apprehend hostile prisoners

8). Patrol an area of responsibility during an emergency

9). Rescue hostages

10) conduct search of area or responsibility during an emergency

 

Q. What 4 things is the Emergency Response Team designed to do?

A. 1). Contain crowd activity

2). Assault or divide a crowd

3). Move or guide a crowd

4). Extract a hostage or any injured personnel

 

Q. Name 5 Emergency Response Team formations:

A. 1). Column

2). Line

3). Wedge

4). Diagonal left or right

5). Diamond

 

Q. Name 7 areas an officer should not strike a person with a baton:

A. 1). Head

2). Neck

3). Throat

4). Underarm

5). Heart

6). Groin

7). Kidneys

 

Q. How many members are on a "Spider" Team?

A. 1). Four

 

Q. What are the responsibilities of each "Spider" Team member?

A. 1). 1-man "Scout"

2). 2-man "gas", a.k.a. "G-man"

3). Weapons man

4). Rear guard

 

Q. A "Spider" Team is designed for what type of assault?

A. 1). Stealth

 

 

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15. INMATE PROPERTY

 

Q. Who can allow excess inmate property to be placed on a (chain) vehicle, if space

is available?

a). Inmates

b). Institutional Division Staff

c). All the above

d). none of the above

A. (B): Institutional Division Staff

 

Q. Who evaluates a property loss claim and recommends or denies if for further

review?

a). Major

b). Unit Finance Coordinator

c). Unit Warden

d). Property Officer

A. ( C ): Unit Warden

 

Q. What steps should an inmate expect to follow when property is lost?

A. 1). Try to resolve informally

2). File a property claim from up to 15 days from the date of loss

 

Q. What remedies may be used for property replacement?

A. a). monetary reimbursement of up to $50.00

b). replacement property

c). corrective action deemed necessary by administrative officials

after a investigation of the claim

 

Q. Are inmates allowed to take their personal property and legal materials

with them if they are on a medical transport? (TRUE or FALSE)

A. FALSE: they are only allowed personal hygiene

 

Q. Can a emergency medical transport be held up in order to inventory property? (TRUE or FALSE)

A. FALSE

 

Q. What does K.O.P. mean?

A. keep on person

 

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16. CHEMICAL AGENTS

 

Q. How many individuals, in addition to the Unit Armorer, should be trained

and certified as a chemical agent instructor on each unit?

A. three (3)

 

Q. What is the color code for (CN) Chloroacetophenone gas?

A. red

 

Q. What is the color code for (CS) Orthochlorbenzalmalonitrile gas?

A. blue

 

Q. What ways can chemical agents be dispersed?

A. 1). Tear smoke generator

2). 37 mm gas gun

3). Aerosol

4). Grenades

 

Q. What areas of the body are most effected by chemical agents?

A. Moist area

 

Q. How is an individual that has been exposed to CN gas decontaminated?

A. Take the individual out in fresh air , stand them facing into the wind with their eyes open, flush

exposed area with water.

 

Q. When possible, ____________ personnel should also be present when

chemical agents are administered.

A. Medical

 

Q. When are chemical agents used?

A. 1). To prevent escape

2). To contain or control an inmate disturbance

3). To prevent personal injury

 

Q. Who is allowed to administer chemical agents?

A. only trained personnel

 

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17. INMATE CUSTODY LEVELS AND TIME EARNING CLASS

 

Q. Who is responsible for making determinations regarding an inmates eligibility for

promotional consideration?

A. Chief of Unit Classifications

 

Q. What outlines the promotional process for both time-earning categories

and custody level designation?

A. General Populations Promotion Categories

 

Q. What are the 8 time-earning classifications?

A. 1). S1

2). S2

3). S2-restricted

4). S3

5). S4

6). Line Class 1

7). Line Class 2

8). Line Class 3

 

Q. What are the 5 principle custody levels?

A. 1). Maximum

2). Minimum In

3). Minimum Out

4). Close Custody

5). Medium

 

Q. What is "classifications" in the prison system?

A. A process which groups offenders according to security, program needs,

and requirements.

 

Q. What are the 4 reasons for Administrative Segregation?

A. 1). Security Detention

2). Pre-hearing detention

3). Protective Custody

4). Temporary detention between consecutive terms of solitary

confinement

 

Q. What doe SAT stand for?

A. State Approved Trusty

 

Q. What dictates the amount of good-conduct-time credits an inmate

may be awarded?

A. time earning status

 

Q. Who may take the position of chairperson on the Classification

Committee?

A. 1). Security Captain

2). Chief of Unit Classifications

3). Assistant Warden

4). Senior Warden

 

Q. How much is a level SAT 1 allowed to purchase through the commissary

every two weeks?

A. $60.00

 

 

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18. CONTRABAND AND SEARCHES

 

Q. What are 3 types of searches?

A. 1). Body cavity

2). Strip

3). Pat

 

Q. Can a Correctional Officer perform a body cavity search?

A. Yes, with approval from the Regional Director, otherwise

medical staff performs them.

 

Q. Who can authorize a body cavity search?

A. Regional Director

 

Q. Who should be immediately notified of a body cavity search?

A. E.A.C. (Emergency Action Center)

 

Q. Can an officer be strip searched?

A. Yes, when there is legitimate suspicion and approval from

Huntsville

 

Q. What kinds of contraband are there?

A. 1). Dangerous -knives, drugs, money

2). Nuisance-out of date, over stocked papers/magazines, etc.

 

Q. What form is used when confiscating contraband?

A. "confiscation and Disposition of Contraband form (AD-92)

 

Q. When can legal materials be confiscated ?

A. When the inmate has acquired so much legal material that it becomes

"nuisance" material, and they have not requested additional storage.

 

Q.. Can an inmate loan another inmate their property?

A. No.

 

 

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19. OFF UNIT TRANSPORTS

 

Q. If an inmate has to be transferred to a hospital via ambulance, who calls for

the ambulance?

a). Unit Warden

b). Ranking Supervisor

c). Medical Staff

A. ( C ): Medical Staff

 

Q. How far away must the weapons officer stand from a inmate?

a). 20 feet

b). 15 feet

c). 25 inch

d). 25 feet

A. ( D ).: 25 feet

 

Q. When an inmate is transported via a wheelchair or stretcher, who pushes them?

a). Officer

b). Medical

c). Hospital transportation

d). B and/ or C

A. (D): medical and/or hospital transportation

 

Q. Who is required to remain in a inmates hospital room at all times?

a). Weapons officer

b). Nursing staff

c). Unarmed staff

d). doctors

A. ( C ): Unarmed staff

 

Q. When would a weapon’s officer be in closer proximity to an inmate than 25 feet,

and where would the officer stand?

a). On a elevator: to the left of the inmate

b). On a elevator: to the right of the inmate

c). On a elevator: in front of the inmate

d) On a elevator: on the opposite wall of the inmate

A. (D): on a elevator: on the opposite wall of the inmate

 

Q. A copy of a inmates travel card is kept by one escort team officer in a designated

location: (TRUE or FALSE)

A. True

 

Q. Can an inmate be restrained to a stationary object with mechanical restraints?

(TRUE or FALSE)

A. false

 

Q. What does the acronym R.A.C.E stand for in regards to a fire:

A. Rescue, alarm, contain, and evacuate

 

Q. What is the minimum number of officers that can be used on a transfer

assignment?

a). 5

b). 3

c). 1

A. C.

 

Q. How many out of cell programs are their for inmates?

A. 7

d). 2

A. ( D): two

 

Q. Can the County Sheriff’s Department be called in to assist with transporting

and/or temporary housing if a vehicle breaks down or some other emergency .

(TRUE or FALSE)

A. true

 

Q. Who can prohibit an inmate from wearing mechanical restraints?

a). Supervisor

b). Officer

c). Nurse

d). Physician

A. ( D ): Physician

 

Q. If medical staff needs a inmate transferred, who do they notify?

a). a officer

b). Shift Supervisor

c). other nurses

d). none of the above

A. (B): Shift Supervisor

 

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20. Recreation

 

Q. Which of the following is a programmatic Activity?

a.) visitation

b.) chapel

c.) O.J.T. Training opportunities

d.) All of the above

 

Q. Which of the following may limit an inmate access to recreation?

a.) Job assignment

b.) Medical Status

c. Custody level

d.) All of the above

A. D

 

Q. Which of the Ad. Seg. Inmates have television privileges?

a.) Level 1

b.) Level 2

c.) Level 3

d.) Ad. Seg. Protective Custody

A. D

 

Q. Inmates on Transient status are allowed Television privileges. True or False

A. False

 

Q. All TDCJ-ID facilities are required to be equipped with a Gym. True or False

A. False

 

Q. Who is responsible for developing a Unit Building Schedule for all recreational activities?

A. Warden

 

Q. What is the minimum number of game table that should be in a dayroom?

A. 3

 

Q. What is the difference between programmatic and non programmatic activities?

A. Programmatic activities are activities that will benefit the inmates, ie: school, social skills

 

 

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21. IAD (Internal Affairs Division)

 

Q. IAD must be notified in the event of the confiscation of any controlled substance. True or False

A. True

 

Q. IAD will be notified of all inmate deaths ie: natural, suicide, homicide suspicious ect. True or False

A. True

 

Q. IAD must be notified in the event of any weapon confiscation. True or False

A. False

 

Q. IAD must be notified in the event of any assault on an officer. True or False

A. False

 

Q. IAD has how many divisions?

A. 4 (State Jails, Institutional Divisions, Parole, Criminal Justice)

 

Q. IAD is authorized to develop and use confidential informants. True or False

A. True

 

Q. IAD is responsible for Pre Employment background checks. True or False

A. True

 

Q. Two priorities identified in the IAD mission statement are investigations of:

A. 1.) Excessive or unnecessary Uses of Force

2.) Retaliation against inmates for persiung legal activities

 

Q. Inmate grievances are processed by IAD. True or False

A. False

 

Q. An Officer can face disciplinary action for refusing to take a polygraph. True or False

A. False

 

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22. HOSTAGE SITUATIONS

 

Q. What is the definition of an Emergency Situation?

A. A condition which threatens the normal functioning and good order of the

institution, and cannot be terminated by the staff on duty.

 

Q. What is the definition for E.C.C. and what is it?

A. Emergency Command Center. An executive structure which can assume total

control of a units operations when a institutional emergency has been declared.

The Center can retain such control until the threat has been terminated.

 

Q. What is the goal of the initial negotiator during a hostage situation?

A. 1). To let the hostage taker/takers ventilate

2). To gather information, ie., how many staff members and inmates are involved,

are there any injuries, etc.

3). To keep communications general and refrain from bargaining or

negotiating until a primary negotiator is obtained.

 

Q. What information should one try to acquire from a hostage that would help clarify

or identify circumstances of the situation?

A. 1). Number of hostages

2). Number of inmates taking hostages

3). Number of inmates not involved

4). Any injuries

5). Names of the inmates taking hostages

6). The location of each individual

7). Who appears in charge

8). Determine possible motive

9). If communicating by phone, the number of the phone

 

Q. What is the purpose and function of the Tactical Command Center (T.C.C.)?

A. The Center takes command and control of the unit’s Riot Control Team,

Negotiation Team, and any other staff or personnel assigned to the emergency’s

location and coordinates their activity. This is done by the Tactical Commander.

 

Q. Name 4 points that insure that the Tactical Command Center (T.C.C.) is properly

located when there is a hostage situation:

A. 1). The team is strategically located to the situation

2). They are defensible against an attack

3). They are accessible to incoming personnel

4). They are in easy access to water, electricity, restrooms, and telephones.

 

Q. What is the Conflict Management Team?

A. A group of staff specialists who are temporarily assembled and are under

the directive of one administrative head. They maintain the routine

institutional operations of the unit, coordinate its activity, and distribute

information during the emergency.

 

Q. Who is allowed to discuss an institutional emergency with an inmate, a

new representative, or any other outside person?

A. Chief of the Conflict Management Team / or his/her designee

 

Q. Who are the members on the Negotiation Management Team?

A. 1). Primary Negotiator

2). Secondary Negotiator

3). Relief Negotiator

4). Psychological Consultant

5). Negotiations Team Leader

 

Q. Who can activate the Tactical Response Team (TRT)?

A. 1). Warden

2). Regional/Deputy Director or his designee

 

Q. Who give the orders/instructions to the Tactical Response Team?

A. Incident Manager

 

Q. What 4 things are non-negotiable in a hostage situation?

A. 1). Escape/release

2). Introduction of weapons

3). Introduction of alcoholic beverages

4). Exchange of hostages

 

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23. EMPLOYEE DISCIPLINARY

 

Q. What is the PD-22?

A. Guidelines for Employee Disciplinary Actions

 

Q. What is a Pers-327?

A. No Rehire Statement

 

Q. On what form does "alleged violations" need to be put on?

A. Pers-325

 

Q. How many days does one have to submit finding of a pre-hearing

investigation?

A. 10 working days from the alleged violation, unless persons are

in the hospital.

 

Q. What is a Pers-185?

A. Reprimand Form

 

Q. What is the "Three Violations with 12 months" rule?

A. an employee may be recommended for dismissal if they commit any

violation three times within a 12 month period (except for tardiness).

 

Q. How many days may a FLSA, non-exempt employee, be suspended?

A. Up to 30 days

 

Q. While on suspension without pay, can an employee gain access to the unit?

A. No. Their I.D. card will be taken from them on the date of suspension?

 

Q. What disciplinary action may be taken if an employee commits a Level 1

offense? ( Level 1 offenses: gambling on state property, use of alcohol/drugs,

use of excessive force (non-provoked with serious injuries), aiding in an escape,

etc.)

A. Dismissal only.

 

Q. Name three Level 1 employee offenses:

A. 1). Gambling on state property

2). Use of alcohol or drugs on duty

3). Aiding and abetting in an escape

 

Q. Name three Level 2 employee offenses:

A. 1). Sleeping on duty

2). Leaving duty post

3). Introduction of contraband into a unit or onto State property

 

Q. Name three Level 3 employee offenses:

A. 1). Unexcused absences

2). Horseplay - with injury

3). Use of profane/abusive language or racial slurs

 

Q. Name three Level 4 employee offenses:

A. 1). Tardiness

2). Horseplay - without injury

3). Substandard duty performance

 

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24. EMPLOYEE GRIEVANCE

 

Q. Does the Guidelines for Employee Disciplinary Actions constitute a employee

contract or guarantee employment?

A. No

 

Q. The agency reserves the right to change the provisions of the guidelines at

any time? (TRUE or FALSE)

A. True

 

Q. Does the submission of a grievance by an employee reflect unfavorably on that

employee’s good standing? (TRUE or FALSE)

A. False

 

Q. If an employee grievance cannot be resolved, can the employee consider another

course of action in the matter? (TRUE or FALSE).

A. False

 

Q. When involved in a grievance, what form does an employee use to select a

representative?

A. Pers-155

 

Q. Can an employee use State resources to prepare for a grievance hearing?

(YES or NO)

A. Yes

 

Q. Can a representative, whether they are an employee or other individual , use

State resources during any point of a grievance process? (YES or NO )

A. No

 

Q. How many working days does an employee have to submit their completed

and signed Employee Grievance Form, from the time of an occurrence or

from first learning of an occurrence?

A. 15 days

 

Q. How many working days does one have to re-submit a grievance that was

not previously accepted?

A. 15 days

 

Q. How many working days does one have to reject the "Step One" portion of a

grievance?

A. 15 days

 

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25. COUNT PROCEDURES

 

Q. What are the 4 types of count?

A. 1). Formal

2). Re-count

3). Continuous

4). Special

 

Q. What kind of count is called when there is an unusual or emergency situation ?

A. Special

 

Q. What is the minimum number of counts that can be called within a 24 hour period?

A. 6 (six)

 

Q. What is a continuous count?

A. A continuous ‘physical’ count of inmates

 

Q. In what areas will one perform continuous counts?

A.. 1). Field force

2). Work crews

3). Recreational areas

4). Craft shop

5). Educational classes

6). Construction crews

 

Q. What count is correctional staff responsible for?

A. Formal

 

Q. What is stopped momentarily while count is being conducted?

A. Inmate movement

 

Q. Is formal count called daily? (TRUE or FALSE)

A. True

 

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26. INMATE VISITATION

 

Q. What are normal visitation days and hours?

A. Saturdays and Sundays between 8:00 am and 5:00 pm

 

Q. Are visits allowed on Holidays which fall during a weekday?

(YES or NO)

A. No

 

Q. Children under 13 years of age must be accompanied by an adult

who is on the inmate’s visitation list. (TRUE or FALSE)

A. False. Children under 16 years of age

 

Q. What information does a visitor need to provide prior to entering

a unit?

A. 1). The name and TDC # of the inmate to be visited

2). Their relationship to the inmate

3). Their current address

 

Q. How long is a Special Visit and what is the mileage?

A. 4 hours. 300 miles

 

Q. Visitors cannot bring what items to visitation?

A. 1). Packages, mail, and magazines

2). Food items

3). Purses, diaper bags, or briefcases

4). Cameras

5). Baby strollers, toys, or dolls

6). Photographs or photo albums

 

Q. What is a visitor permitted to bring to visitation?

A. 1). Up to $10.00 cash

2). Small wallet or change purse

3). 3 diapers and 2 baby bottles

 

Q. What are visitors prohibited in engaging in when attending

visitation?

A. 1). Loitering around the unit’s front gate or tower

2). Walking along the perimeter road

3). Photographing building, fences, etc.

4). Loud playing of radios

5). Yelling at inmates

 

Q. Visitors are allowed to wear clothing with pictures or language

that the current public standards consider profane or offensive?

(TRUE or FALSE)

A. False

 

Q. Female visitors are allowed to wear dresses and skirts that appear

to be short? (TRUE or FALSE)

A. False

 

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27. LAW LIBRARY

 

Q. Who is responsible for Inmate Legal Services (ILS)?

A. Assistant Director of Inmate Legal Services. They are responsible

for the management and operation of these services

 

Q. Is inmate-to-inmate mail concerning legal matters considered

Special, Legal, or Regular mail?

A. Regular, and shall be searched as such.

 

Q. In order for certain legal documents to be sent as certified mail,

what requirements must be met?

A. 1). They must involve a lawsuit that is currently in a state trial court

2). a). Must be a motion or a response to a motion

b). A amendment or supplemental pleading, complaint, or petition

c). A response to an original amendment or supplemental pleading,

complaint or petition.

3). They must be sent to either a party to the lawsuit or his/her attorney

 

Q. How do non-indigent inmates obtain legal supplies?

A. If they are not on commissary restriction, they may obtain correspondence

supplies, postage, and law library supplies from the unit commissary.

 

Q. How is an indigent inmate identified so they may receive indigent supplies?

A. 1). They must have had less than a $5.00 balance for 60 days or less

2). They must have had less that a $5.00 balance for more that 60 days

3). They must have been placed on commissary restriction status

 

Q. When is it adequate to send legal documents as first class mail?

A. 1). When the lawsuit is in federal district court.

2). When the lawsuit is not yet a formal lawsuit

3). When the person mailing the document is not a party to the suit

4). When the recipient is not a party or a party’s attorney

5). When the lawsuit is on appeal

6). When the correspondence is sent to the senders own attorney

 

Q. Where are supplies ordered from?

A. Pens, carbon paper, envelopes and paper are ordered from the Huntsville

Prison Store

 

Q. What is the policy on the return of pens?

A. One ballpoint pen shall be issued or sold to an inmate. Thereafter, pens are

issued on a exchange basis (except for inmates on commissary restriction or

inmates who are less than 60 days indigent who had purchased their pens).

 

Q. What is the record keeping policy of transactions?

A. A 90-day history of transactions, both manual and automated, are maintained

for audit purposes.

 

Q. What is the policy on lawsuits against TDCJ employees?

A. It is the policy of the Texas Department of Criminal Justice, that all

employees cooperate with the office of the Attorney General in the event

an employee is sued for acts or omissions arising out of the performance

of his duties as a TDCJ employees.

 

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28. MAINTENANCE

 

Q. What division is responsible for monitoring cleanliness and sanitation

during unit inspections?

A. Compliance Division

 

Q. Who is responsible for inspecting the maintenance and sanitary conditions

of the area that you are assigned to?

A. You are

 

Q. Who will conduct an unscheduled walk-through inspection of the a units

condition on a periodic basis to insure that the unit is adhering to maintenance

and sanitary conditions?

A. The Warden or designated Assistant Warden

 

Q. Who is responsible for weekly follow-ups on daily inspection reports?

A. The unit’s department head or their designee

 

Q. Who is responsible for the painting schedules for all areas of a unit?

A. The Warden

 

Q. Who receives the weekly reports which list deficiencies and corrective

actions from various unit department heads?

A. The Warden

 

Q. What is a AD-84?

A. Daily Inspection Log

 

Q. Who coordinates with the maintenance officer to insure that

all safety deficiencies are addressed and reconciled?

A. The Unit Safety Officer

 

Q. Who validates backorders on repair parts and unit needs when

received?

A. The Warden

 

Q. What categories does maintenance divide deficiencies into?

A. 1). Urgent

2). Essential

3). Projected

 

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29. SITUATIONAL QUESTIONS

Q What would you do if you were a Supervisor and an employee reported that he/she saw an inmate

crawl on the roof?

A. First thing is to stop all movement and start a special count and call the Duty Warden. This special count should be done as a roster count. While the count is going on you should send Officers to the roof to check the area. Once it has been determined that an inmate has escaped a command center will be set up and the Unit Escape Plan will be put into action. The inmates property and living area should be secured to keep down contamination.

 

Q. What would you do, as a Supervisor if a visitor took an inmate hostage?

A. Secure the area, stop all movement, Start a special count to determine exactly who is being held,

notify the Duty Warden, start the Units protocol for hostages as outlined in the Emergency Action

Plan.

 

Q. What would you do, as a Supervisor if an inmate refused a body cavity search?

A. Force would be used and Security would perform the cavity search, under direct medical supervision.

 

Q. What do you do if you are sued by an inmate?

A. Turn your summons over to Wardens office so representation from the Attorney Generals office can be obtained. Do not talk about the case to any unauthorized staff.

 

Q. What would you do if an inmate refuses to shower after a major use

of force with a chemical agent?

A. Their are two different ways to decontaminate. If the inmate refuses to go out side and let the wind decontaminate him/her or shower no force will be used for decontamination. Place the inmate back in his/her cell.

 

Q. You are a Supervisor and the Perimeter Rover reports footprints leading away from the perimeter fence… what would you do?

A. Stop all movement, call a special count, send an Officer out to secure the scene. If it determined that an inmate has escaped, follow the Units protocol for escapes as outlined in the Emergency Action plan.

 

Q. What would you do if an inmate attempted an escape with his/her visitor while in a public hospital?

A. Call out for someone to call local law enforcement, warn the inmate of his/her actions, fire a warning shot if safely possible, shot the inmate if the area is safe from innocent bystanders.

 

Q. What would you do if an un-restrained inmate took a nurse hostage while in a public hospital?

A. Secure the area, inform the unit and local law enforcement, implement Unit protocol for hostages as

outlined in the Emergency action Plan

 

Q. What would you do if an inmate, being transported in a van, got out of his/her restraints and took an

officer hostage?

A. Do not pull over the vehicle. Notify the nearest Unit by radio as well as local law enforcement.

Follow Unit protocol for hostages and escapes the Emergency Action Plan.

 

Q. What would you do if you found one of your fellow officers beaten unconscious?

A. Secure the area, call for help, administer first aid,

Q You are a weapons officer in an intensive care unit at a public hospital….a inmates family member

comes to visit but is not on the visitation list. The family member gets upset and starts screaming …

what do you do?

A. Attempt to calm the family member. Call for assistance from hospital security, make sure that you

maintain a safe distance from the disgruntle family member.

 

Q. Three inmates get into a fight. You and another officer are the only ones present. Your fellow officer

jumps in and attempts to break up the fight. While doing so, the inmates begin beating up the officer. What do you do?

A. Call for help and wait for an adequate amount of staff to arrive. Their is no sense in two Officers getting beaten down.

 

Q. What do you do if you are a picket officer and you see an inmate run towards the perimeter fence and

start to climb it?

A. Call either on the phone or radio and notify the Warden or their designee( if time permits). Tell the

Offender to stop, Fire a warning shot (if it can be shot safely), if the Offender still refuses to stop, then

shoot to injure the inmate.

 

Q. What would you do if while having a conversation with another officer a inmate comes out of

nowhere and hits the officer?

A. Order the inmate to stop. If the inmate complies with orders then no Use of force can occur, If the

Inmate refuses, a Use of Force may follow, as determined in the Use of Force Plan.

 

Q. What do you do if one of your Officers notifies you that he/she was a relative or close friend of an

inmate that was just assigned to your Unit?

A. You must have the Officer write an IOC as to his/her relationship with the inmate. Inform the

Officer that fraternizing is 8strictly against policy and disciplinary could result. It will be the

supervisors responsibility to report this to the Warden. The Supervisor will assign the Officer to a

position to minimize the contact between the Officer and the inmate.

 

Q. What would you do as the highest ranking shift supervisor on night shift, and all the lights in the unit

go out, and the backup generator doesn’t kick in?

A. Stop all movement and start a Special count, place extra Officers out on perimeter, notify Duty

Warden and Maintenance. Maintain no movement until the lights are restored and count clears.

Once the lights are restored another special count should be done.

 

Q. What would you do if you heard a 10-78 called over the radio and you are an extra officer.

A. Respond to the area.

 

Q. You are transporting an inmate in a vehicle that just had surgery on his head….You hit a bump and

he re-injures his head and begins to bleed. What would you do?

A. Notify the Unit of the situation. Return to the Unit for Medical attention and evaluation.

 

Q. What would you do if while transporting an inmate from one unit to another and you have an

accident and total your van and it is approximately 1 hour to the closest unit?

A. Attempt to notify the closest Unit by radio. Call Local Law Enforcement, by radio for back-up and

added security. Use local law enforcement to transport yourself and the inmate to a secure area such

as a jail.

 

Q. What would you do if you are transporting an inmate to off unit medical and as soon as the inmate

got of the van he/she laid down and refused to move. Remember that you only have 1 armed and 1

baton officer.

A. Radio the unit and advise of the situation. Continue to order the Inmate to get up. Call for security at

the medical complex. If additional free world security arrives then you may get them to assist the

Officers in physically placing the inmate back in the van.

 

  1. What would you do if you are working transient and you are taking an inmate to rec. and the inmate pulls out a shank?

RETURN TO TOP

 

30. EMPLOYEE DRUG/ALCOHOL TESTING

Q. When can state employees be ordered to take a drug/alcohol test?

A. a. prior to employment or assignment

b. reasonable suspicion

c. before a return to duty

d. follow-up alcohol/drug testing

 

Q. Under what condition can an employee be ordered to submit to a

second alcohol /drug test?

A. When the initial test result is positive. (.02 blood concentration level)

 

Q. Where can a state employee with a drug or alcohol abuse problem go

for help or assistance?

A. The E.A.P. - Employee Assistance Program

 

Q. What actions can be considered a refusal for submitting to alcohol/drug testing?

A. a. failure to arrive at the collection site on time

b. refusal to sign the certification on the Breath Alcohol Testing form

or Chain of Custody form.

c. failure to provide an adequate breath or urine specimen

d. refusing to test because of a medical condition which either had not

been disclosed or refused to be disclosed.

e. refusing to cooperate with the collection site personnel in such a way

that the test is unable to be completed.

f. failing to be available for a drug/alcohol test after a work related

accident.

 

Q. If an employee is under a doctors care and taking prescription drugs which

may affect or hinder their job performance, what should they do to protect

themselves from being subjected to unnecessary drug testing?

A. Provide a written explanation of how their medications could affect them

on the job and submit it to their direct supervisor.

 

Q. Does an employee have to submit to drug testing upon returning to work if they

had previously lost their job, grieved it, and was reinstated?

A. No.

 

Q. What must a supervisor do in order to send an officer for a "reasonable suspicion"

drug/alcohol test?

A. They must submit specific documentation of the officers appearance, behavior,

speech, body odor, and job performance indicating that the officer is under the

influence of a drug or alcohol. This is to be submitted to the Assistant Director

or Regional Director.

 

Q. What guidelines and standards are followed in screening or testing for drugs?

A. National Institute of Drug Abuse (NIDA). They screen for marijuana, cocaine,

opiates, phencyclidine, and amphetamines.

 

Q. Does an employee have to be supervised when being tested?

A. No., unless personnel administering the test believes you have reason to tamper

with the specimen.

 

Q. When might personnel administering tests have reason to suspect that a employee

might tamper with their specimen?

A. a. if the employee has had a positive test result in the past and this is a follow-up

test.

b. the urine specimen is not between 90 -100 degrees F., and the employee

refuses to provide an oral temperature.

c. the last specimen given was determined to have been tampered with.

 

Q. How long does a supervisor have to get an employee in for testing if they suspect

the employee to be under the influence.? (This would be from the time the supervisor

first observed the employee in an altered state).

A. eight (8) hours, unless they have a verifiable reason for delay. They have a maximum

of 32 hours even with documentation.

 

Q. What happens if an officer reports to a collection site for drug testing and cannot

provide an adequate specimen?

A. They can remain at the site for up to 2 hours and drink up to 24 ounces of fluid.

If at the end of this period they still cannot provide a specimen, they can leave

but must provide a written statement within 5 days to the Substance Control

Officer explaining their inability to provide a specimen.

 

Q. What happens if an trainee reports to a collection site for drug testing and cannot

provide an adequate specimen?

A. They can remain at the site for up to 2 hours and drink up to 24 ounces of fluid.

If at the end of this period they still cannot provide a specimen, they can leave

but must provide a written statement within 5 days to the Substance Control

Officer explaining their inability to provide a specimen. They must provide a

specimen prior to graduation or the offer for employment will be withdrawn.

 

Q. What happens if an employee or potential employee refuses to take a drug test?

A. a. if not presently employed, they will not be hired.

b. if employed as a trainee, they will be administratively separated from

employment.

c. employees will be subject to disciplinary in accordance with PD-22.

 

  1. Will an employee still receive pay if sent for initial drug testing?

A. Yes, but not to exceed one day.